Supreme CourtIndustrial Relations CodeLabour CodesBangalore Water SupplyArticle 141
- A seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held on August 20 that the expansive interpretation of "industry" laid down in the 1978 Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board judgment will not serve as the foundation for interpreting Section 2(p) of the Industrial Relations Code, which came into force in November 2025.
- The majority opinion was authored by Chief Justice Surya Kant and supported by Justices Satish Chandra Sharma, Alok Aradhe and Vipul M. Pancholi, with Justices P.S. Narasimha and Joymalya Bagchi agreeing in separate opinions.
- The Chief Justice said the new Code must be read on its own text and context and should not be "burdened" by the 1978 reading of Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
- The 1978 judgment, authored by Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer, had given "industry" a deliberately wide meaning.
- It introduced the triple test: any activity that is systematically organised, operated on the basis of employer-employee cooperation, and engaged in producing goods or services to satisfy human wants falls within "industry".
- Only core sovereign functions such as the judiciary, law and order and defence were kept outside.
- The practical effect was that workers across hospitals, universities, research bodies, charitable institutions and municipal utilities could invoke the machinery of the Industrial Disputes Act, including conciliation, adjudication and protection against unfair labour practices.
- Justice B.V. Nagarathna dissented strongly, seconded by Justice Dipankar Datta writing separately along with Justice Ujjal Bhuyan.
- She held the reference itself was unwarranted and not maintainable, and argued that in an increasingly privatised economy the inclusive definition of industry matters more than ever, not less, because the shift of ownership to private entities is precisely when workers need statutory recourse.
- The Chief Justice, for his part, suggested the triple test could have been "articulated differently", but clarified this was only a considered opinion that should not disturb pending proceedings or reopen decided cases.
- For the examination, the significance is structural rather than merely doctrinal.
- The four labour codes replaced 29 central labour laws, and this is the first authoritative signal that judicial precedent built up around the repealed statutes does not automatically carry forward.
- Candidates should be able to connect this to the wider question of how far codification resets settled worker protections, and to Article 141 on the binding nature of Supreme Court precedent.
Practice Questions
With reference to the triple test laid down in the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board case (1978), consider the following statements:
I. The activity must be systematically organised.
II. It must be carried on with the cooperation of employer and employee.
III. It must be aimed at earning profit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
The Supreme Court judgment of August 2026 on the definition of industry is significant primarily because it:
A Struck down the Industrial Relations Code as unconstitutional
B Held that the 1978 interpretation will not be the foundation for interpreting the corresponding provision of the Industrial Relations Code
C Extended the definition of industry to include the judiciary and defence establishments
D Transferred the power to define industry from Parliament to the State legislatures
CAACitizenship ActUnion ListCentre-State RelationsDistrict Collector
- The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has, through an order dated August 19 and the Citizenship (Third Amendment) Rules, 2026, transferred the processing of pending citizenship applications under the Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019 from Empowered Committees to District Collectors in eight States and Union Territories: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Assam except tribal areas, Tripura except tribal areas, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.
- Collectors are now empowered to receive, scrutinise and dispose of applications for registration or naturalisation under Section 6B of the Citizenship Act, and to verify documents and determine eligibility themselves.
- The change is administratively significant because of what it replaces.
- The Citizenship Amendment Rules notified on March 11, 2024, days before the general election, had centralised processing in Empowered Committees composed of Central government officials drawn from the Census directorate, the Intelligence Bureau and the postal department.
- That design deliberately bypassed State machinery, and at least four such committees were constituted in West Bengal shortly before the Assembly polls, at a time when the then Trinamool Congress government opposed the CAA. The August 19 order makes the March 2024 notification inapplicable in these jurisdictions.
- Citizenship is Entry 17 of the Union List, so the Centre is within its competence either way.
- But the earlier arrangement had a political logic: it removed any dependence on State cooperation for logistics, office space and police verification.
- Reverting to Collectors, who are State-cadre officers under the general administrative control of the State government even though they are IAS officers, restores that dependence.
- The order follows the change of government in West Bengal, which is the context The Hindu highlights.
- For answer writing, this is a clean illustration of how the same constitutional competence can be exercised through very different institutional channels depending on Centre-State political alignment.
- It also links to the CAA eligibility criteria itself: members of six non-Muslim communities from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh who entered India before December 31, 2014.
Practice Questions
Under the Constitution of India, citizenship falls within which of the following?
A Union List
B State List
C Concurrent List
D Residuary powers of Parliament
Consider the following statements regarding the August 2026 order on processing of applications under the Citizenship Amendment Act:
I. Processing has been transferred from Empowered Committees to District Collectors.
II. The Empowered Committees consisted of State government officials.
III. Applications are processed under Section 6B of the Citizenship Act.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II and III
Zonal CouncilsDelimitationCooperative FederalismMullaperiyarRiver Interlinking
- The 31st Southern Zonal Council met at Mamallapuram near Chennai on August 20, chaired by Union Home Minister Amit Shah with the Chief Ministers of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala present.
- Mr. Shah pressed for early resolution of pending inter-State water disputes through consultation among the Ministry of Jal Shakti, the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Inter-State Council and the States concerned, and suggested that interlinking major rivers such as the Cauvery and the Godavari could remove water scarcity.
- He argued that a State pursuing only its own interest, while not wrong in itself, serves no real purpose if it deprives other States of water for years.
- The Chief Ministers used the platform to press regional grievances. Tamil Nadu Chief Minister C. Joseph Vijay said southern States seek not preferential but fair and equitable treatment that respects fiscal autonomy and rewards performance alongside equity.
- Karnataka Chief Minister D.K. Shivakumar asked the Council to adopt a resolution calling on the Centre to honour the 1971 Census as the basis for delimitation.
- Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister N. Chandrababu Naidu said the South could become a ten trillion dollar economy by 2047.
- Kerala Chief Minister V.D. Satheesan reaffirmed willingness to supply water to Tamil Nadu from a proposed new dam at Mullaperiyar, with Kerala bearing construction costs and Tamil Nadu responsible for construction and location.
- Telangana Deputy Chief Minister Mallu Bhatti Vikramarka said cooperative federalism must resolve inter-State issues in a fair, time-bound and legally sustainable manner.
- Andhra Pradesh and Telangana agreed to settle the division of assets and liabilities in consultation with the Home Ministry.
- Zonal Councils are statutory, not constitutional, bodies created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
- There are five, plus the North Eastern Council under a separate 1971 Act.
- The Union Home Minister chairs each; the Chief Ministers of member States serve as vice-chairman by annual rotation.
- They are advisory, which is exactly why the delimitation demand surfaced here: the Council can pass a resolution but cannot bind the Centre.
- The delimitation point is the one to master. Article 82 read with the 84th and 87th Amendments froze seat allocation on the 1971 Census until the first census after 2026.
- Southern States argue that using a later census would penalise them for successful population control.
Practice Questions
Consider the following statements about Zonal Councils in India:
I. They are constitutional bodies established under Part XI of the Constitution.
II. The Union Home Minister is the chairman of each Zonal Council.
III. Their recommendations are advisory in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C III only
D I, II and III
The demand of southern States that the 1971 Census continue to be the basis for delimitation is directly connected to which of the following constitutional provisions?
A Article 80 and the Third Schedule
B Article 82 read with the 84th and 87th Constitutional Amendments
C Article 246 and the Seventh Schedule
D Article 280 and the Finance Commission
India-JapanMaritime SecurityIndo-PacificQuadDefence Cooperation
- Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and his Japanese counterpart Shinjiro Koizumi signed a Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security Cooperation in New Delhi on August 20, providing a framework for closer operational cooperation between the Indian Navy and the Japan Maritime Self-Defense Force.
- The arrangement covers Maritime Domain Awareness, search and rescue, humanitarian assistance and disaster relief, information sharing, naval exercises, ship repair and logistics support.
- Both Ministers reaffirmed the Japan-India Special Strategic and Global Partnership and the commitment to a free and open Indo-Pacific.
- Specific undertakings include strengthened coordination for the protection of Sea Lines of Communication through reciprocal naval visits and joint exercises, personnel and subject matter expert exchanges, and logistical support including access to ports and maintenance and repair facilities.
- The two sides will also pursue cooperation in mine countermeasures and explore joint development in naval shipbuilding and design, leveraging Japanese technological expertise alongside Indian production capacity, with greater use of Indian shipbuilding under the Make in India framework and reciprocal ship repair facilities.
- On exercises, the Ministers welcomed the expansion of Dharma Guardian, the bilateral army exercise, and JAIMEX, the maritime exercise, and noted the planned Veer Guardian 26 air exercise in which Japanese fighter aircraft will participate in India for the first time.
- The strategic reading matters more than the list. Ship repair and logistics access is the practical substance of naval reach, and reciprocal port access shortens turnaround for both navies across the Indian Ocean and the western Pacific.
- Candidates should place this alongside India existing logistics arrangements, the 2020 Acquisition and Cross-Servicing Agreement with Japan, LEMOA with the United States, and similar pacts with France and Australia, and within the Quad framework of which both are members.
Practice Questions
Consider the following pairs of India-Japan military exercises:
I. Dharma Guardian : Army
II. JAIMEX : Maritime
III. Veer Guardian : Air
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A Only one
B Only two
C All three
D None
The Memorandum of Arrangement on Maritime Security Cooperation signed between India and Japan in August 2026 includes which of the following?
I. Maritime Domain Awareness and search and rescue
II. Reciprocal provision of ship repair facilities
III. Joint development in naval shipbuilding and design
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Core SectorIndex of Core IndustriesIIPFertilizersBase Effect
- Growth in India eight core industries slowed to 5.4 percent in July 2026 from 6 percent in June, according to the Index of Core Industries released by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry on August 20.
- Despite the deceleration, July recorded the second-fastest growth in seven months.
- The drag came from three directions. Fertilizers contracted 8 percent in July 2026, a performance The Hindu attributes to deficient rainfall and the resulting lower levels of demand.
- Natural gas contracted 3.7 percent and crude oil 5.3 percent, both continuing an unbroken run of contraction stretching across the last fourteen months for which data exists.
- Steel growth slowed to 2.9 percent, the weakest in fourteen months, and iron ore also decelerated sharply, though the reported iron ore growth of 7.6 percent in July rests on a low base since the sector had contracted 12.3 percent in July last year.
- Against this, refinery products snapped a three-month streak of contraction with 2.7 percent growth, the best in nine months.
- Electricity grew 9 percent, slower than the 11.4 percent of June. Cement was the standout at 13.1 percent, a seven-month high, against 11.1 percent in July last year.
- Two analytical points are worth carrying into an answer. First, the base effect: several apparently strong numbers are arithmetic artefacts of last year contractions, and The Hindu explicitly flags that historical comparison is possible only up to a point given the new series.
- Second, the composition tells a story of divergence, with construction-linked sectors such as cement and electricity holding up while the hydrocarbon and fertilizer segments weaken.
- The eight core industries carry a weight of 40.27 percent in the Index of Industrial Production, so this reading directly conditions the IIP print that follows.
Practice Questions
The eight core industries whose performance is captured by the Index of Core Industries have a combined weight in the Index of Industrial Production of approximately:
A 20 percent
B 30 percent
C 40 percent
D 55 percent
According to the core sector data for July 2026, which of the following sectors recorded a contraction?
I. Fertilizers
II. Natural gas
III. Cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
Supreme CourtNEETArticle 142Right to ProtestNTA
- The Supreme Court has constituted a High Powered Enquiry Committee headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice R. Subhash Reddy to probe issues and allegations, including those of police excesses against students, surrounding the nationwide protests against NEET-UG paper leaks.
- The panel includes Justice Ravi Shankar Jha, former Chief Justice of the Punjab and Haryana High Court; Justice Shalinder Kaur, former judge of the Delhi High Court; Rishi Kumar Shukla, former Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation; and L.R. Bishnoi, retired Director General of Police, Meghalaya.
- The composition is the point to notice. Three former judges provide the adjudicatory credibility, while a former CBI Director and a retired DGP supply investigative and policing expertise.
- Court-appointed committees of this kind have become a recurring instrument where the Court considers ordinary investigative machinery compromised or conflicted, since the alleged excesses here are attributed to State police forces.
- The constitutional basis lies in Article 142, which empowers the Supreme Court to pass any order necessary for doing complete justice, read with Article 32 jurisdiction over fundamental rights.
- The rights engaged include Article 19(1)(a) and 19(1)(b) on freedom of speech and peaceful assembly, and Article 21 on life and personal liberty, which the Court has read to cover custodial and protest-related violence.
- This item connects directly to the reform question already before the Court on the National Testing Agency, and to the wider governance failure that examination integrity represents.
- For a GS2 answer, the useful frame is accountability: a paper leak is an administrative failure, the protest response is a policing question, and the Court intervention is a judicial remedy where the executive is both the alleged wrongdoer and the ordinary investigator.
Practice Questions
The power of the Supreme Court to constitute a committee such as the High Powered Enquiry Committee on NEET protest violence is most directly traceable to:
A Article 32 alone
B Article 142
C Article 143
D Article 226
Consider the following statements about the High Powered Enquiry Committee constituted by the Supreme Court on the NEET-UG protests:
I. It is headed by a former judge of the Supreme Court.
II. It includes a former Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation.
III. Its mandate includes allegations of police excesses against students.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
MMDR ActMiningFiscal FederalismPESAFifth Schedule
- Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren said on August 20 that his government would oppose the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 on every democratic, constitutional and legal front, alleging that the Centre passed it without taking States into confidence.
- He said the changes to the existing MMDR Act are highly adverse and will seriously affect every tribal, Dalit, poor person, farmer and labourer in the State, and asked who would compensate States for the losses expected to arise, noting that Jharkhand had already submitted a claim to the Centre and that the Centre appears unwilling to compensate even past losses.
- The AJSU Party called the ruling Jharkhand Mukti Morcha opposition a political stunt.
- The federal question here is genuine and examinable. Regulation of mines and mineral development falls under Entry 54 of the Union List to the extent declared by Parliament to be expedient in the public interest, while Entry 23 of the State List covers the same subject subject to that declaration.
- Parliament therefore holds the field, but States are the actual holders of mineral-bearing land and the principal recipients of royalty, so amendments to the MMDR framework alter State revenue directly.
- Two related strands should be carried into an answer. The first is the Supreme Court nine-judge ruling of 2024 in Mineral Area Development Authority, which held that royalty is not a tax and that States retain the power to levy taxes on mineral rights, a decision with large fiscal consequences for mineral-rich States including Jharkhand, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
- The second is the Fifth Schedule and the Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996, under which Gram Sabhas in Scheduled Areas must be consulted before land acquisition and mining leases, which is where Mr.
- Soren tribal and Dalit argument locates itself. The broader theme is that cooperative federalism is tested most sharply in resource governance, where legislative competence rests with the Centre but the social and environmental cost is borne locally.
Practice Questions
With reference to the legislative competence over mines and minerals in India, consider the following statements:
I. Entry 54 of the Union List covers regulation of mines and mineral development to the extent declared by Parliament to be expedient in the public interest.
II. Entry 23 of the State List is subject to the provisions of the Union List entry.
III. States receive royalty from mineral extraction.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III
The Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996 is relevant to mining disputes primarily because it:
A Vests ownership of all minerals in the Gram Sabha
B Requires consultation with the Gram Sabha before land acquisition and grant of mining leases in Scheduled Areas
C Prohibits all mining activity in Fifth Schedule areas
D Transfers the power to grant mining leases from the State to the Union government
Great NicobarData CentreShompenTribal RightsBiosphere Reserve
- The Andaman and Nicobar Islands administration has withdrawn an Expression of Interest that sought feasibility proposals for a private sector led green AI data centre in sea areas around the islands.
- The notice, issued days after the EoI was published on August 10, said the withdrawal was with immediate effect and cited administrative reasons.
- The withdrawal followed reporting by The Hindu that the local Nicobarese population on Great Nicobar Island had not been informed of any plan to establish a data centre in the surrounding sea areas.
- Residents are already protesting a proposed mega infrastructure project on the island valued at ninety one thousand crore rupees.
- The siting details explain the concern. The EoI identified sea areas around Little Andaman and Great Nicobar Island, along bays that the draft master plan had earmarked for entirely different purposes: Gandhi Nagar Bay for one of two wildlife corridors, Anderson Bay for agriculture, biodiversity tourism and fish and poultry, Vijay Nagar Bay for coastal and business tourism, and Campbell Bay for residential pockets and institutional and administrative buildings.
- The draft master plan, meant to account for water, power and connectivity infrastructure for the larger development project, contains no mention of a green AI or data centre vertical at all.
- The administration is currently holding consultations with tribal communities on Great Nicobar over finalising that master plan.
- This is a compact case study for GS3 on environment and development and for GS2 on tribal rights.
- Great Nicobar is a biosphere reserve, home to the particularly vulnerable Shompen and to the Nicobarese, and is governed by tribal reserve protections.
- The episode illustrates the procedural failure at the heart of many such disputes: a proposal was floated for areas already zoned for conservation and community use, without prior information to affected communities, and had to be withdrawn once that became public.
Practice Questions
The Shompen, who inhabit Great Nicobar Island, are best described as:
A A Scheduled Caste community
B A Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group
C A denotified nomadic tribe
D A community of recent settlers from the mainland
Consider the following statements regarding the Expression of Interest for a green AI data centre in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
I. It was withdrawn by the islands administration citing administrative reasons.
II. The sea areas identified fall along bays earmarked in the draft master plan for other purposes including a wildlife corridor.
III. The draft master plan had already provided for a data centre vertical.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A I and II only
B II and III only
C I and III only
D I, II and III